Arsenal are planning a move for Fenerbahce full-back Ferdi Kadioglu this summer, according to a report from Turkey.

Turkish outlet TRTSpor report that a number of teams are planning to contact Fenerbahce over Ferdi Kadioglu this summer, but the two frontrunners are Arsenal and Napoli.

Fenerbahce aren’t keen to sell, refusing to consider anything other than an ‘astronomical’ offer.

But with the apparent interest in the 24-year-old at the moment, it’s not impossible the Super Lig club might receive a few big bids.

Kadioglu has made 41 appearances for Fenerbahce this season, largely playing as a left-back but also playing as a right-back on a relatively regular basis (almost 20% of his appearances).

The defender has three goals and four assists in those 41 games, and he’s also a Turkey international.

Having been born in the Netherlands and coming through the academy system at Dutch club NEC, Kadioglu represented the Dutch youth teams all the way up to the u21s.

But after that, the full-back made the switch, and he’s now made 15 appearances for Turkey, scoring his first international goal against Germany in November.

Kadioglu has been linked with Arsenal all season, and there were suggestions the Gunners might make a move in the January transfer window.

That didn’t come to pass, but with repeated injury issues for Arsenal left-back options Oleksandr Zinchenko and Takehiro Tomiyasu, it’s very possible the club will dip into the market this summer.