Arsenal already have an agreement with Evan Ndicka to join the Gunners on a free transfer next summer, according to a report.

Il Romanista report that AS Roma’s attempts to sign Evan Ndicka have hit a roadblock, as the outlet have determined with “more than reasonable certainty” that the defender already has an agreement with Arsenal.

According to the Italian outlet, Ndicka has agreed to join Arsenal on a free transfer next summer, when his contract with Frankfurt expires.

The Evening Standard wrote in October that Ndicka had emerged as a transfer option for Arsenal, with Frankfurt pushing to extend his contract.

But Bild then wrote that the player looked less and less likely to sign a new deal, with Frankfurt open to offers for a January sale in the region of €15m.

If the latest reports are to be believed, Arsenal prefer to simply wait it out and snap up the 23-year-old centre-back on a free in the summer.

There’s certainly some logic to an Arsenal move for Ndicka. The Gunners look to be low on centre-backs right now, particularly left-footed left-centre-backs.

With Takehiro Tomiyasu and Ben White playing in the full-back positions more regularly nowadays, Gabriel Magalhaes, William Saliba, and Rob Holding are really Mikel Arteta’s only options centrally. Both Saliba and Holding seem to prefer the right.

Ndicka is left-footed and has an impressive set of stats, as well as building up plenty of experience in the Bundesliga and in Europe for his age.

Just last year, he won the UEFA Europa League with Frankfurt and made the Bundesliga Team of the Season.

On a free transfer, it seems like a low-risk move that could potentially add a lot to the Arsenal squad at the back. Though reliable sources in the English media remain quiet on any pre-contract agreement, so don’t get too excited yet.